Hi @vibs0138, is the the wager that was settled today?
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Yes, thatâs correct. Just the last one, Ref. 24071966576622. Apologize didnât know that I should have posted here and not create a new one
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Checking with the team.
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Thank you, the player who was placed as part of the bet retired hurt, so should have been a pushover like in the past but was incorrectly assigned as a loss.
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Still waiting for an update from the team.
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Any ETA on this or is it resolved based on the queue?
I will follow up with them again.
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Thank you, please let me know.
As per further review, the wager was correctly settled based on the rule Batsman Runs rule #29:
The result of this wager is determined by the total number of runs scored by the named batsman. If the batsman finishes the innings not out, as a result of a declaration, the team reaching the end of their allotted overs, or the team reaching their target; his score will be the final result. If a batsman does not bat, the bet will be void. If a batsman is not in the starting 11, bets will be void. If a batsman retires hurt, but returns later, the total runs scored by that batsman in the innings will count. If the batsman does not return later, the final result will be as it stood when the batsman retired.
Brooke, itâs an injury based retirement. He had to retire due to an injury, how could that be accounted in the bet?
Could you please send me a message? I will explain
Regretfully, the decision was made to count the total runs that Batsman scored during the innings. The outcome will be the same as it was when the batter retired if he or if injury occurred and does not return later. So the score still stands unfortunately, it was lesser than the amount in the wager.
But I have had a similar bet termed it as a pushover when the player retired due to injury and lost the match? Whatâs with the discrepancy?
Can I please get some explanation around this? Iâm still not sure why this was placed as a loss
These are the rules as already posted:
Batsman Runs: The result of this wager is determined by the total number of runs scored by the named batsman. If the batsman finishes the innings not out, as a result of a declaration, the team reaching the end of their allotted overs, or the team reaching their target; his score will be the final result. If a batsman does not bat, the bet will be void. If a batsman is not in the starting 11, bets will be void. If a batsman retires hurt, but returns later, the total runs scored by that batsman in the innings will count. If the batsman does not return later, the final result will be as it stood when the batsman retired
Ok guys help me out here please. I did a parlay in which I won all my other games. Now the thing is I took Columbia in a Future Bet to win The Copa within my parlay. Im having issues understanding what Im seeing for this particular wager within my parlay. Remind you that I did this on 7-7 prior to Columbiaâs game with Uruguay. I received plus 350(only) and on my ticket it says (Regulation Only)! First off, Bovada doesnât offer Soccer Future Bets that say âRegulation Onlyâ. Look at their MLS future bets and youâll see. Second of all Columbia was plus 220 to win in regulation vs Uruguay and plus 320 or so vs. Argentina. That would come out to be like 12 to 1 IF such a bet was offered. How can this wager only be plus 350 when placed before Uruguay game and how in the World does it say regulation only and NOT Outright Winner like moat future bets??? If Columbia wins somehow in pens I would lose??? When I placed my wager I did not see âRegulation Onlyâ, and these odds would not justify that! I have already spoken to Bovada and they said itâs valid line and bet. This is incorrect, right? Wrong odds if so and in addition who offers these ridiculous wagers if so. Why would I have taken Columbia plus 350 to beat Uruguay and Argentina in regulation only?!?
I believe this was already advised by the sports team via CS.
Can some have this wager graded please, Ref. 24071966932408
Bear with me iâll check on this
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